Adam Rufa - 5/2/2006

Question
Could you tell me what this means in a less medical method, please.

"As best visualized on the oblique coronal T1 and T2 FS sequences images #11 and #12, there is a small tear of the superior labrum posteriorly.  The labrum imbibes a small amount of gadolinium in this area.  The bicipital/labral complex is intact and the long head of the biceps tendon remains in the bicipital groove.  There is question of a tiny anterosuperior sublabral foramen."

There is moderate supraspinatus and infraspinatus and mild teres minor and subscapularis tendinopathy.  The respective muscles of the rotator cuff are normal.  There is a trace of edema within the subdeltoid bursa.  The acromioclavicular joint is normal in appearance.  The acromion has a slight downward tilt on the oblique coronals, and is subtly concave on the oblique sagittals.  No evidence of subacromial enthesophyte formation is seen."

Answer
Luke

There is a small tear on the upper part of the labrum. The labrum is a cartilage ring around the socket part of the shoulder joint that improves the stability of the shoulder.

The biceps tendon attaches to the socket of the shoulder and the labrum. The MRI showed that it looked ok.

The radiologist saw "tendinopathy" of the rotator cuff tendons. This means they are irritated but they did not appear to be torn.

The collar bone slopes down which can sometimes lead to rotator cuff irritation. There was no bone spurs on the collar bone which can also cause rotator cuff irritation.

Adam